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A Muslim writes a Question based on Imaan

Answered according to Hanafi Fiqh by Askimam.org

A Muslim writes a Question based on Imaan listed below(question copied and pasted below) to a Mufti/maulana to find out the ruling/fatwa in such a matter/case.

In reality the muslim did not say any kufr statements and did not ask VERBALLY the query number 2 listed in the Question below but still writes in the question below that he asked query number 2 verbally (as explained in the Question below,) which was emailed to the mufti.
He still writes in the email to the Islamic Scholar as explained in the question below that he asked query number 2 verbally but in reality he did not ask query number 2 verbally , where he wrote query number 2 by referring to himself or writes ‘me’ in query number 2. this was done because he wanted to
find out the ruling in such a matter.
does doing this make him a non-muslim?

If any of the above has confused you, please ask.

Answer

In the Name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful.

As-salāmu ‘alaykum wa-rahmatullāhi wa-barakātuh

If the person did not intend Kufr and did not utter words of Kufr, then his Imaan is intact. If he stated that he uttered Kufr but did not do so, then at most that is a lie for which he should make Taubah and repent. He should not misrepresent a factual situation.

And Allah Ta’āla Knows Best

Mufti Ebrahim Desai.

www.daruliftaa.net 

This answer was collected from Askimam.org, which is operated under the supervision of Mufti Ebrahim Desai from South Africa.

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