Home » Hanafi Fiqh » DarulIftaBirmingham » Can a Muslim be aromantic?

Can a Muslim be aromantic?

Answered as per Hanafi Fiqh by DarulIftaBirmingham

Answered by:  Maulana Moinul Abu Hamza​

Question:

Salaam, I’d like to ask about the Islamic viewpoint on asexuality and aromanticism? The specific definitions I’m referring to are; asexuality= no sexual desire towards any person (though still capable of having romantic relationships) and aromantics= having no interest in romantic relationships

I understand that marriage is a big part of Imaan, and its virtues are constantly stressed upon so is it possible for a person to feel no sexual or romantic desire?

Answer:


In The Name Of Allah, The Most-Merciful, The Most Kind

       

It is indeed possible to have no desire and you are not sinful for that which you are not in control of. The same applies to be aromantic. The need for conjugal relations and relationships bring about the need for marriage, so in this case, you are not accountable for marriage.

And Allah SWT knows best

Answered by Maulana Moinul Abu Hamza

Checked and approved Mufti Mohammed Tosir Miah

Darul Ifta Birmingham

This answer was collected from DarulIftaBirmingham.co.uk, which is run under the supervision of Mufti Mohammed Tosir Miah from the United Kingdom.

Read answers with similar topics: