Answered according to Hanafi Fiqh by

Assalamo aleikum,o would like to know Islamic ruling on pronouncing 3 divorces in diferent sentence e.g talaq…talaq..talaq..before consummation of marriage ,e.g they never had intercourse so the wife dont have to wait for iddah as they never had sexual relation ,but they stayed in privacy together but never had sexual intercourse ,Do they result in 3 divorces or is it only one divorce? And if talaq took place so how can they both remarry again


Wa’alaykum as Salam wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuhu,

If there was seclusion in such a way that if the couple intended to have intercourse, there would be no hindrance, then all three divorces will be valid and binding. This is irrespective whether actual intercourse took place or not. Likewise, it does not make a difference whether the words were uttered in one sentence, or in seperate sentances.

It will not be permissible to remarry unless the girl marries another man without any terms and conditions, and then he either passes away or divorces her on his own free will.


And Allaah Ta’aala knows best


Ismail Moosa (Mufti)

This answer was collected from which is an excellent Q&A site managed by Mufti Ismail Moosa from South Africa. .

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