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Working as a business analyst

Answered as per Hanafi Fiqh by Askimam.org

As salamu alaykum 

I was wondering, I find that as a analyst or business analyst working in the west is becoming far more difficlut than before as the issue on RIBA seems to touch all if not most buisness in some form or another. 

My questions is what should be the yardstick used when one finds themself in a few of the following scenarios.

1. Perhaps a wealth management company working with systems that support riba and non  riba products. Should one take view that most of the income here is not from RIBA as riba is not the reason or driving factor of the business per se as it would be in the conventional bank.

2. Insurance companies these days offer tokafol(Halal form of insurance). When working for these companies you could work for one that underwrites a product like this or the conventional sort. Does this mean you can only work with the halal ones as companies dont really divide at that level. Under the hood of this one will find that there is really almost no difference between the product being sold conventional and takafol with an exception the company saying they do not invest in non halal investment?

3. The world is moving toward global digitalisaion so these days you could purchase your airtime and such from your conventional banks meaning if you though working in the telco space was completly fine the lines are becoming blurred. Does one who work on this area of a job although working in telco is generally understood to be ok or halal. Does it come down to splitting down to departmental level now if you allowed to work in that divisiion or not?

4. From the above it should be understood atleast that even though some companies are in the financial sector they do not neccassrly thrive on RIBA only. RIBA is perhaps specific products or charged on late payments as penalty. Most companies have the latter in any form of billing. Does this mean working in financial sector as long as the most of the income is not that of RIBA? then its fine as it can be seen from the financials from a company normally ?

Answer

In the Name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful.

As-salāmu ‘alaykum wa-rahmatullāhi wa-barakātuh.

You refer to three issues:

1.     Wealth management company

2.     Halaal insurance

3.     Global digitalisation and its implications

Points 2 and 3 of your query are not clear. However, according to our understanding of the queries you enquire about the yardstick one should use to determine Shariah compliance of one’s employment and the income. It also appears that according to you the criteria for prohibition is Riba being the major source of income. In point one you state “…that most of the income is not from Riba”. Furthermore, your queries are in the context of a business analyst. You have not explained the actual job description a business analyst. However, according to our understanding, a business analyst is responsible for bridging the gap between IT and the business using data analytics to assess processes, determine requirements and deliver data-driven recommendations and reports to executives and stakeholders.[1]

It must be understood that the cause of prohibition is not only about Riba. Being the major source of income. It is also about one’s role and relationship with un-Islamic practices, Riba, insurance etc. If a person directly or indirectly involved in a sinful act by engaging in it directly or promoting it through advises, recommendations etc, that falls in the category of assisting in sin which is prohibited.

Hereunder are the broad rules on the extent of assisting in sin.[2]

1.    If one sells an item that could be used for a permissible act or a prohibited act and his intention is to commit a sin, then that is prohibited and regarded as assisting in sin. For example, if one sells grape juice to someone and his intention is the purchaser makes wine with the grape juice, then that is prohibited

2.     If one sells an item that could be used for something permissible and prohibited and one is aware that the person will use it for a prohibited cause, for example, selling weapons to rebels during a war.

3.     If one sells an item that could be used for permissible and prohibited causes, and the seller does not intend sin and he does not know the purchaser will use it for a prohibited cause, then if the purchaser used it for a prohibited cause, the seller will not be responsible. For example, if a shop keeper sells bread and milk. The purchaser consumes the bread and milk and gains strength and energy. He then commits Zina. In this case the seller is not responsible for the sin committed by the purchaser.

The above can be summarised as:

1.     Direct cause -Intention to commit sin

2.     Close means – Knowing a person will commit sin 

3.     Distant means – Do not know one will commit sin

We hope the above will be useful in applying it in your context. If you have further queries on this, you may revert to us.

And Allah Ta’āla Knows Best

Ahmed-Ur-Rahmaan ibn Mufti Mohammed Patel (Rahmatullah Alaih)

Student Darul Iftaa

Azaadville, South Africa

Checked and Approved by,
Mufti Ebrahim Desai.

05-12-1440|07-08-2019


[1] https://www.cio.com/article/2436638/project-management-what-do-business-analysts-actually-do-for-software-implementation-projects.html

 

 جواهر الفقه (ص447-448)[2]

ما قامت المعصية بعينه هو ما كانت المعصية في نفس فعل المعين بحيث لا تنقطع عنه نسبتها بفعل ذلك الفاعل المختار وذلك بثلاث وجوه: الأول أن يقصد الإعانة على المعصية. فإن من باع العصير بقصد أن يتخذ منه الخمر أو أمرد بقصد أن يفسق به كان عاصيا في نفس هذا البيع بهذه النية والقصد كذا من آجر بيتا بقصد أن يباع فيه الخمر فقامت المعصية بعين هذه الإجارة مع قطع النظرعن فعل فاعل مختار لاقتران هذه النية كما مر مصرحا في الأشباه وحظر رد المحتار والثاني بتصريح المعصية في صلب العقد كمن قال بِعْني هذا العصير لأتخذه خمرا فقال بِعْتُه…فإنه بهذا التصريح تضمن نفس العقد معصية مع قطع النظر عما يحدث بعد ذلك من إتخاذه خمرا…والثالث بيع أشياء ليس لها مصرف إلا في المعصية…ففي جميع هذه الصور قامت المعصية بعين هذا العقد والعاقدان كلاهما آثمان بنفس العقد سواء استعمل بعد ذلك في المعصية أم لا سواء استعملها على هذه الحالة أو بعد إحداث صنعة فيه فإن استعملها في المعصية كان ذلك اثما آخر على الفاعل خاصة

 

جواهر الفقه (ص449-452)

سبب محرك للمعصية بحيث لو لاه لما أقدم الفاعل على هذه المعصية كسب آلهة الكفار بحيث يكون سببا مفضيا لسب الله سبحانه وتعالى ومثله نهي أمهات المؤمنين عن الخدوع في الكلام للأجانب ونهي النساء عن ضرب أرجلهن لكون ذلك الخدوع وضرب الأرجل سببا جالبا للمعصية وإن خلا عن نية المعصية كما هو ظاهر عن شأن أمهات المؤمنين ونساء المؤمنين.

وسبب ليس كذلك ولكنه يعين لمريد المعصية ويوصله إلى ما يهواه كإحضار الخمر لمن يريد شربه وإعطاء السيف بيد من يريد قتلا بغير حق ومثلها سائر الجزئيات المذكورة سابقا فإنها ليست أسبابا محركة وباعثة على المعصية بل أسباب تعين لباغي الشر على شره…فالقسم الأول من السبب القريب حرام بنص القرآن قال تعالى ولا تسبوا الذين يدعون من دون الله فيسبوا الله عدوا بغير علم (الأنعام)…القسم الثاني من السبب القريب أعنى ما لم يكن محركا وباعثا بل موصلا محضا فحرمته وإن لم تكن منصوصة ولكنه داخل فيه باشتراك العلة وهي الإفضاء إلى الشر والمعصية ولهذا أطلق الفقهاء رحمهم الله عليها لفظ كراهة التحريم لا الحرمة كما في سائر الجزئيات المذكورة سابقا فإنهم قالوا إنها تكره كراهة التحريم كما صرح به في الخانية جزما واختاره كثير من أرباب الفتوى ومن أطلق عليه لفظ الجواز فيحمل على جواز العقد بمعنى الصحة دون رفع الاثم كما هو معهود عند فقهائنا في مواضع لا تحصى…

وأما السبب البعيد كبيع الحديد من أهل الفتنة وبيع العنب ممن يبتخذه خمرا وبيع الآجر والحطب ممن يتخذها كنيسة أو بيعة وكذا إجارة الدابة لمن يريد سفر معصية وأمثالها إذا علم فتكره تنزيها

This answer was collected from Askimam.org, which is operated under the supervision of Mufti Ebrahim Desai from South Africa.

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