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If a man calls his wife baby can it constitute zihar if he intended by it

Answered as per Hanafi Fiqh by DarulIftaBirmingham

Answered by: Moulana Muhammad Imad Ali

Question

If a man calls his wife baby can it constitute zihar if he intended by it?

Answer

Regarding your question zihar will ocuur.

For further information regarding zihar please follow the link below:

http://daruliftabirmingham.co.uk/zihar/

Only Allah knows best.

Written by Moulana Muhammad Imad Ali

Checked and approved by Mufti Mohammed Tosir Miah

Darul Ifta Birmingham


Original Source Link

This answer was collected from DarulIftaBirmingham.co.uk, which is run under the supervision of Mufti Mohammed Tosir Miah from the United Kingdom.

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