I made a promise to God to either stop/reduce daydreaming, or to stop maladaptive daydreaming(MD). MD is a distinct kind of daydreaming which is also a suspected to be a psychiatric disorder. It is not like normal daydreaming, and if i said i would stop MD i (believe?) I would not have intended normal daydreaming. I cant remember which of the 2, so i assumed MD. But is this promise valid? If it is, would i stop or reduce what i am meant to be stopping/reducing? Do i deal with MD or normal daydreaming?
Do the religious activities (example: vows, divorces, oaths, etc.), which necessitates verbal utterance of a person, come into effect by mere movement of tongue without using the lips? Even if he uses the lips along with the tongue, but doesn’t make a hearable or meaningful word, would his utterance come into effect?
I said (verbally): ‘Ya Allah I promise if I am saved from ‘such and such’ thing then I will take an oath to stop ‘such and such’ sin and that because of the oath, InshaAllah by Allah’s mercy allow me to do good on a specific exam.’
Is there kaffarah for not fulfilling the promise to make an oath?
I have made an oath since, to give up that sin for a given time period, does this fulfill my promise, or will I have to take another oath to give up this sin forever?
Additionally, will there be a time limit for me to make that oath (before my exam), or could I do it after as well? If I do it after the exam, would there be kaffarah?
“if a man intended by means of zihaar to refrain from having intercourse with a woman who is not his wife, then he must offer expiation for breaking an oath (kafaarat yameen) if he had married her and had intercourse with her.”- is it correct?
Q. I have taken an oath which I had broken. I have been told that I must feed two meals to ten people to compensate for it. Can I give ten people the money for it instead of feeding them?
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