Q: If a man utters the word “divorce” not for the purpose of his wife’s divorce neither was he addressing her at a time when it was uttered. However when it was uttered a thought of his wife came in his mind. Will it constitute divorce ? It was uttered without any purpose. He was not addressing his wife. He had no intention of referring it to his wife. However when it was uttered a thought of his wife occurred in his mind in a flash and disappeared. Now he is worried.
And Allah Ta’ala (الله تعالى) knows best.
Mufti Ebrahim Salejee (Isipingo Beach)
This answer was collected from MuftiOnline.co.za, where the questions have been answered by Mufti Zakaria Makada (Hafizahullah), who is currently a senior lecturer in the science of Hadith and Fiqh at Madrasah Ta’leemuddeen, Isipingo Beach, South Africa.