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Is it Correct for One to Revert Only with the Intention of Marrying a Muslim

Answered as per Hanafi Fiqh by DarulIftaBirmingham

Answered by: Alimah Sumeyye Sofu


Is it correct for one to revert only with the intention of marrying a Muslim?

بِسْمِ اللهِ الرَّحْمنِ الرَّحِيْم

In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful


‘Umar Ibn Al-Khattab said: “I heard the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) say: “Actions are based on intention and each person will have but that which he intended. So whoever migrated for some worldly purpose or for the sake of a woman whom he could marry, his migration was for the purpose that he intended.” (Al-Bukhari, Hadith no.1, Darus Salam)

As it is mentioned in the Hadith above; Actions are based on intention. If a person became a Muslim, other than the sake of Allah (s.a.w). His faith is according to his intention. But as a Muslim, we don’t judge him and say his Islam is not accepted. As long as he said kalimah, then it is between him and Allah (s.a.w). We consider this person as a Muslim. As long as he doesn’t do anything which shows he exited the religion of Islam.

Similar to this incident also take place at the time of Prophet (S.a.w). Anas (R.a.) narrated that: “Umm Sulaim became Muslim before Abu Talhah, and he proposed to her but she said: ‘I have become Muslim; if you become Muslim I will marry you.’ So he became Muslim.” (Sunan Nasai Hadith no. 3342, Darus Salam)

Only Allah knows best

Written by Alimah Sumeyye Sofu

Checked and approved by Mufti Mohammed Tosir Miah

Darul Ifta Birmingham


This answer was collected from DarulIftaBirmingham.co.uk, which is run under the supervision of Mufti Mohammed Tosir Miah from the United Kingdom.

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