Divorce through Pakistani Deed of Divorce Notice

Answered according to Hanafi Fiqh by DarulIftaBirmingham

Answered by: Alimah Siddiqa al-Farsiyyah


My husband sent me Pakistani deed of divorce notice on which divorce was mentioned 3 times. Before that, he texted me saying ‘that is one’. Despite this, he says he had no intention for the divorce but family pressure and legalities led him to do this. He says he has said that he is not divorcing me in front of 2 men who are his elder brother and father. What is the shar’i importance of this deed of divorce, and how should it have been dealt with when the document was received? I was on my period at that time. We are the followers of Hanafi Fiqh.

بِسْمِ اللهِ الرَّحْمنِ الرَّحِيْم

In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful.


If the husband has issued three divorces (talaaqs) through a written document with clear and explicit writing in which he has addressed his wife, then divorce has occurred. [1] Family pressure is not considered enough force to invalidate the divorce, hence the divorce has occurred.[2]

Only Allah knows best

Written by Alimah Siddiqa al-Farsiyyah

Checked and approved by Mufti Mohammed Tosir Miah

Darul Ifta Birmingham


[1] Raddul Muhtaar 4/442, al-Maktabah al-Ashrafiyyah

[2] Ibid, 4/427

This answer was collected from, which is run under the supervision of Mufti Mohammed Tosir Miah from the United Kingdom.

Find more answers indexed from: DarulIftaBirmingham
Read more answers with similar topics:
Related QA

Pin It on Pinterest