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I pronounced one talaq through SMS to my wife, for having made false allegations and leaving house without consent and informing husband and not returning thereafter. Now four years are over does the marriage relationship still exist? Request you to please reply in the preview of Shariah (Islamic law).

Answered according to Hanafi Fiqh by Darulifta-Deoband.com

بسم الله الرحمن الرحيم

(Fatwa: 308/308/M=04/1437)

When you admit that you have given one talaq to your wife through SMS then one talaq occurred on your wife. It occurred as per your intention i.e. if you have given it in clear cut words then one talaq rajai took place and if you used vague words then one talaq bayin took place. And if you have given talaq in clear words, but did not take her back during the iddah period or you gave talaq bayin; then in both the cases the nikah came to an end.

Note: However the better option is to write the exact words which you used in the SMS for giving talaq and submit the question again.

Allah knows Best!

Darul Ifta,
Darul Uloom Deoband

This answer was collected from the official ifta website of Darul Uloom Deoband in India.

Find more answers indexed from: Darulifta-Deoband.com
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