Answered according to Hanafi Fiqh by

Q: Me and my husband were living in U.K. I got divorced from him because of continuous arguments through the court of Pakistan. The court sent him a letter to inform him about the case and he received it but didn’t hire any solicitor there. I got divorced from him after a few months but he never signed any letter neither said that he is giving me divorce. After two weeks of getting the divorce I got married with another person and I had nikah with him only for a month and I got divorced from him as well. Now I’m back in U.K and my first husband is claiming that I’m still his wife because he never divorced me and I asked through court but with false allegations that’s why my second nikah and divorce doesn’t count but actually considered as zina. Please clarify this issue I’m so confused.


A: It will be important for you to refer your entire case before some Pakistani ulama. They should know all the court proceedings and the order of faskh. Then only can we be in a position of saying whether the court faskh was valid or not.

And Allah Ta’ala (الله تعالى) knows best.


Answered by:

Mufti Ebrahim Salejee (Isipingo Beach)

This answer was collected from, where the questions have been answered by Mufti Zakaria Makada (Hafizahullah), who is currently a senior lecturer in the science of Hadith and Fiqh at Madrasah Ta’leemuddeen, Isipingo Beach, South Africa.

Find more answers indexed from:
Read more answers with similar topics:
Subscribe to IslamQA Weekly Newsletter

Subscribe to IslamQA Weekly Newsletter

You will receive 5 Q&A in your inbox every week

We have sent a confirmation to you. Please check the and confirm your subscription. Thank you!