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Taking hotel food to one’s room and sharing it with others

Answered as per Hanafi Fiqh by Muftionline.co.za

Q: Zaid has paid a hotel for buffet food. The hotel lets zaid take what ever amount of food he likes to eat to his room. Will it be permissible for Zaid to share some of his food with his family members who are staying with him in his room?

Bismillaah

A: Yes.

And Allah Ta’ala (الله تعالى) knows best.

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الحاجه تنزل منزلة الضرورة

السادسة : الحاجه تنزل منزلة الضرورة عامة كانت أو خاصة ولهذا جوزت الإجارة على خلاف القياس للحاجة ولذا قلنا لا تجوز إجارة بيت بمنافع بيت : لاتحاد جنس المنفعة فلا حاجة بخلاف ما إذا اختلف ومنها ضمان الدرك جوز على خلاف القياس ومن ذلك جواز السلم على خلاف القياس لكونه بيع المعدوم دفعا لحاجة المفاليس ومنها جواز الاستصناع للحاجة ودخول الحمام مع جهالة مكثه فيها وما يستعمله من مائها وشربة السقاء (الأشباه والنظائر  1/ 267)

قال الشامي : وفي التاترخانية عن التتمة سألت أبا يوسف رحمه الله تعالى عن الرجل يدخل السفينة أو يحتجم أو يفتصد أو يدخل الحمام أو يشرب الماء من السقاء ثم يدفع الأجرة وثمن الماء قال يجوز استحسانا ولا يحتاج إلى العقد قبل ذلك اه قلت ومنه ما قدمناه عنها من انعقادها بغير لفظ وسيأتي في المتفرقات عن الأشباه السكوت في الإجارة رضا وقبول وفي حاوي الزاهدي رامزا استأجر من القيم دارا وسكن فيما ثم بقي ساكنا في السنة الثانية بغير عقد وأخذ القيم شيئا من الأجرة فإنه ينعقد به في كل السنة لا في حصة ما أخذ فقط اه ومثله في القنية في باب انقضاء الإجارة بعد انقضاء مدتها ووجوب الأجر بغير عقد حامدية (رد المحتار 6/ 6)

Answered by:

Mufti Zakaria Makada

Checked & Approved:

Mufti Ebrahim Salejee (Isipingo Beach)


Q: Hotels generally have a policy of charging for meals per person wishing to take meals with the hotel. If Zaid has paid for meals for himself only and now intentionally fills his plate up with food to share with others in the room who have not paid for meals, this appears to be dishonest. This is a common scheme used to avoid paying for other room members meals and yet getting meals free for them. Kindly advise if it would  be permissible for Zaid to intentionally take extra food to share with people who haven’t paid for meals.

Bismillaah

A: He has paid the hotel for the food and the hotel has allowed him to take any amount of food he wishes to his room. Hence, the food he takes to his room had entered into his ownership (i.e. tamleek has taken place). The hotel did not provide him the food in the manner of ibaahat (i.e. making the food mubaah (permissible) for him to consume). Had the food only been made mubaah for him by the hotel, then he would not have been able to give the food to anyone else as the food had not entered into his ownership. However, since he is made the owner of the food and the hotel did not fix any limit in taking the food, whatever he takes will be regarded as his ownership and thereafter he may share it with whomsoever he wishes.

And Allah Ta’ala (الله تعالى) knows best.

Answered by:

Mufti Zakaria Makada

Checked & Approved:

Mufti Ebrahim Salejee (Isipingo Beach)

This answer was collected from MuftiOnline.co.za, where the questions have been answered by Mufti Zakaria Makada (Hafizahullah), who is currently a senior lecturer in the science of Hadith and Fiqh at Madrasah Ta’leemuddeen, Isipingo Beach, South Africa.

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