Assalâmu ‘alaykum wa rahmatullâhi wa barakâtuh.
1) Is it correct that according to Islâm the origin (e.g. Turkish, German, Arab) of a person is defined *only* by the father and nothing else?
2) Example: Father is Turkish, mother is German and the child is conceived and born in France.
According to Islâm, what will the child now be considered? A Turk, a German, a French or a mix?
3)As far as I know according to Islâm the child in the above example would be considered a Turk, is that correct?
Wa’alaykum as Salām wa raḥmatullāhi wa barakātuhu,
The lineage of a person will be towards the father. Thus, in the example you mentioned, the child will considered a Turk.
لأن النسب للآباء (المبسوط للسرخسي
(289/27)
لأن النسب للآباء لا للأمهات وفيه حمل الزوجية على الغير فلا يصح
(الدر المختار617/5)
Wassalaam,
Ismail Moosa (Mufti)
Iftaa Department,
Euro-Sunni & Islamic Research and Welfare Academy