Home » Hanafi Fiqh » ShariahBoard.org » If a person A spent the zakat amount on a person B, given that it was in the best interest of person B and that, that person B was eligible for it and person A didn’t appropriate the possession of the money to person B. Would this method be counted as valid to pay zakat and zakat be accepted?

If a person A spent the zakat amount on a person B, given that it was in the best interest of person B and that, that person B was eligible for it and person A didn’t appropriate the possession of the money to person B. Would this method be counted as valid to pay zakat and zakat be accepted?

Answered as per Hanafi Fiqh by ShariahBoard.org
If a person A spent the zakat amount on a person B, given that it was in the best interest of person B and that, that person B was eligible for it and person A didn’t appropriate the possession of the money to person B. Would this method be counted as valid to pay zakat and zakat be accepted?
Zakat is not paid (accepted) in the above mentioned case.

Original Source Link (from Way Back Machine archive)

This answer was collected from Shariahboard.org. It was established under the supervision of the eminent faqih of our era, Hazrat Shah Mufti Mohammed Navalur Rahman damat barakatuhum.

Read answers with similar topics: