Q: By the time of Ramadhaan when my zakaat becomes payable I will still have in my possession the money for the flights, qurbaani and spending money, none of which will have been in my possession for longer than one year, will zakaat be payable on all these monies in my possession? I have always been under the impression that zakaat is only payable if the money, jewellery, etc., is in your possession for at least one year at the designated date that one would normally pay zakaat. However, I was recently told that it would be payable if it is in your possession as at that date irrespective of the period or when it was received.
A: If one entire lunar year has not passed on your wealth, zakaah will not be payable. In order for zakaah to become obligatory one needs to have the basic nisaab of zakaat. After one has the basic nisaab of zakaat in his possession and an entire lunar year has passed, zakaah will be payable even if there were some addition to this principle (nisaab).
وشرط افتراضها عقل وبلوغ وإسلام وحرية … وسببه أي سبب افتراضها ملك نصاب حولى نسبة للحول لحولانه عليه
و قال في رد المحتار : قوله نسبة للحول أي الحول القمري لا الشمس اهـ (رد المحتار 2/258)
( و المستفاد ) ولو بهبة أو إرث ( وسط الحول يضم إلى نصاب من جنسه ) فيزكيه بحول الأصل (الدر المختار 2/288)
Answered by:
Mufti Ebrahim Salejee (Isipingo Beach)