Home » Hanafi Fiqh » TheMufti.com » If one hears a verse of Sajdah being recited in a congregational Salaah whilst performing his Sunnahs of Salaah, does making the Sajah Tilaawat become necessary (Waajib) upon him? 

If one hears a verse of Sajdah being recited in a congregational Salaah whilst performing his Sunnahs of Salaah, does making the Sajah Tilaawat become necessary (Waajib) upon him? 

Answered as per Hanafi Fiqh by TheMufti.com

Q. It is a common practice for our Imaams to recite Surah Sajdah in our Masaajids at Fajr time on Fridays. A lot of Musallies arrive at the Masjid whilst the Imaam is reciting the verse of Sajdah. Some hear the verse of Sajdah whilst they are performing the Sunnats of Fajr. Some hear it and join the Imaam in Sajdah and others hear it and join the Imaam after he has made Sajdah. Has the Sajdah been done in these situations or it still has to be done?

A. If a person is performing the Sunnats of Fajr and he hears the Imaam reciting a verse of Sajdah in the Fajr Salaah, it will be necessary (Waajib) for him to perform a Sajdah Tilaawat after Salaah. (Shaami 2/105)

If a person joins the Imaam in Sajdah after hearing the Imaam reciting the verse of Sajdah or he joins the Imaam in the same Rakaat of the Sajdah, it will not be necessary (Waajib) for him to make a Sajdah Tilaawat as it would have been considered done by joining the Imaam in the Rakaat of Sajdah. In this situation, if a person joined the Imaam in a Rakaat other than the Rakaat in which he heard the Imaam reciting the verse of Sajdah, the Sajdah will not be considered done and it would remain necessary (Waajib) on him to perform a Sajdah Tilaawat after Salaah. (Hidaayah 1/79)

Allah Ta’ala Knows Best

Mufti Ismaeel Bassa

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This answer was collected from TheMufti.com, which is a fatwa portal managed by Mufti Ismaeel Bassa from South Africa.

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Sir, almost three months back myself and my wife we were staying alone in Bahrain just before ramadan we both had a big fight and that time she was in her monthly cycle in fact the matter was out of hands and we beat each other were totally out of control mentally and physically as well and in anger she first gave Talaq to me by taking Allah as Gawah to which i also get anger and called her parents in India and inform the same and then called my family as well and was talking to them and they tried to console both of us but we never stopped during that time she was still shouting at me and using bad language and I the highest level of my anger talking to my mummy and Bahbi I said i take you (bhabi) as gawah and divorce her (thrice) all at once* which I even doesn’t recollect it and my bhabi says I said it thrice.   After 3 days she went to India and since then she is staying at her house and both of us are not in physical contact since then. But we talk once in a while. and willing to come back to each other and since that day till today have not talked about divorce at all nor she remembers the incident and she has not inform her parents about it as well.   My question to you sir is does my Talaq counts or not under this conditions. As I am confused have ref to so many fatwas and everywhere its different.   And secondly if you’re really out of our mind and pronounced divorce without knowing the consequences of it does it counts.  In the name of Allah, the most Beneficent, the most Merciful.

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