Home » Shafi'i Fiqh » Seekersguidance.org » Is Possession of an Item Transferred Verbally?

Is Possession of an Item Transferred Verbally?

Answered as per Shafi'i Fiqh by Seekersguidance.org

Question:

How is a gift actually enacted? Can one just say or write down that one will give someone something, and then it automatically becomes theirs?

Answer:

Wa alaykum assalam wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuh,

Dear questioner,

Thank you for your important question.

A gift is only binding when one physically or legally makes the transfer: you give the person the mobile phone or register the house in their name, for example. Merely saying that one has given it to them, that it is theirs, or that one will give it to them is not binding, and it still belongs to one. [Minhaj al-Talibin, Nawawi]

To give an illustration, imagine if a father told his sons and daughters that he had given his property to his neighbor as a gift. Before giving the neighbor access to the property (all necessary keys for example) or before transferring the property to the neighbor’s name, he died. In such a case, the property would still belong to the original heirs, and it would not automatically go to the neighbor.

It would however be un-Islamic to go back on one’s promise or to not honor the wishes of one’s deceased relatives. [Iltimas al-Sa’d, Sakhawi]

The Messenger of Allah was asked about how to show kindness to parents after their death. He said, “One may pray for them, seek forgiveness for them, fulfill the promises they made after their death, keep family ties with those they kept family ties with, and honor their friends.” [Abu Dawud]

This however would be recommended, but not obligatory.

I pray this helps.

[Ustadh] Farid Dingle

Checked and Approved by Shaykh Faraz Rabbani

Ustadh Farid Dingle has completed extensive years of study in the sciences of the Arabic language and the various Islamic Sciences. During his studies, he also earned a CIFE Certificate in Islamic Finance. Over the years he has developed a masterful ability to craft lessons that help non-Arabic speakers gain a deep understanding of the language. He currently teaches courses in the Arabic Language.

This answer was collected from Seekersguidance.org. It’s an online learning platform overseen by Sheikh Faraz Rabbani. All courses are free. They also have in-person classes in Canada.

Read answers with similar topics:

Random Q&A

  I bought shares in a listed company over a period of 7 years.  The shares were bought at various prices; some were at a higher price than the current share price, and some were bought at a lower price than the current share price. Some were bought with my own money, and some were bought with money borrowed on a 0% credit card. I recently discovered that the company is haram because it has no earnings, except from interest, and has large debt on which it pays interest. I understand that I must sell the shares, and any profit made has to be donated to charity. I need some advice on how to go about selling the shares, as the total value of my holding is less than what I paid/invested. Some shares are in profit, the majority are in a loss.  There are a few options available: 1)      Wait until the total value of the shares is equal to the  money I invested, and sell. This means that some share will be in profit,  and some will be at loss, but the profit cancels out the loss. 2)      Sell shares as each lot/tranche of shares reaches the price that I paid for them. Donate any excess to charity. This means that it may take  a long time to dispose of the shares, as the price will have to at least double. In fact, the price may never reach what I paid. Do I need to treat the shares purchased by borrowing money on credit card separately to the shares purchased using my own money. How should I deal with transaction costs? If it cost me £12 to buy 10 000 shares at 10p, and it costs me £12 to sell the shares, I have lost £24.