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Is the Following Correct?

Answered as per Hanafi Fiqh by Mahmoodiyah


I have been married for one year.  I met my wife in an African country.  We went together to the nearest Masjid where we contracted our marriage.  There were Muslim witnesses present too.  My wife had been divorced before this too and had completed her months of ‘Iddah.  When we returned to the U.A.E. our life together began with arguments.  Several times she asked me for a divorce.  I divorced her three times and the last time I told her to leave the house as it was the third divorce.  She refused to do so and said that she was in her menses.  I asked different Imams and each one of them gave me different answers.  My question is:  Is my marriage to this lady correct without the permission of her parents?  If yes, then is my divorcing her correct?

Please give me the right answer as it is a matter of life and religion.




If you had intended Talaaq at the time of making the statement “leave the house”, then the third Talaaq has taken place and your wife becomes Haraam for you.

It is Makrooh to give Talaaq while the lady is experiencing Haidh, however the Talaaq is effective.

And Allah Ta’ala knows best

Mufti Muhammad Ashraf

Darul Iftaa

Jameah Mahmoodiyah


08 February 2005

28 Thul Hijjah 1425

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