Someone told me that if a wife and husband don’t have sexual intercourse for 6months by sharia law they become divorced, is this true? The situation is that I want to marry my fiancé who lives in Pakistan, we wish to marry as soon as possible but I live in the uk and he in pakistan, for these reasons we would have to wait for the government to grant him a visa to the uk untill we can reunite and we dont know how long the whole process will take. So if we are unable to fulfill all of our duties to each other due to the situation would we be considered divorced even if there is no intention of divorce? please help!
Answer:
(Fatwa: 393/346/B=1432)
No talaq takes place if husband and wife do not have intercourse for a long time. It takes place only when husband gives talaq verbally or in written form.
Allah (Subhana Wa Ta’ala) knows Best
Darul Ifta,
Darul Uloom Deoband