I am writing this from UK. Yesterday during a family dispute my wife demanded divorce from me. She has been asking quite frequently but I used to leave the house to avoid such situation. But yesterday I could not leave the house and I wrote following sentence on a paper. THIS DIVORCE IS SUBJECT TO HER SIGNATURE. In fact I meant that if she signs this paper then she would be having one divorce this was my intention at the time of writing this. Later on she did not sign it. I just want to know that has this one divorce been done or not? Secondly, if it is 2nd time divorce, then is there any possibility of Ruju, because in 1997 I gave her one talaq on her parents demand? Are we still husband and wife or what is the status of our relation?
Answer:
(Fatwa: 1476/896/H=1432)
Which talaq did you mean by the sentence “this divorce is subject to her signature?” Did you pronounce the word of talaq or gave it in written form, whether you wanted to condition those said words with this sentence? And what were those word of talaq? Write it clearly and submit the question again. Also attach the copy of this fatwa, then you shall be replied in-sha-Allah.
Allah (Subhana Wa Ta’ala) knows Best
Darul Ifta,
Darul Uloom Deoband