Responsibilities of the husband after divorce
Q: If a woman asks for a divorce, what is the responsibility of the man after divorce to her and their infant son?
A: After she has completed her iddat he is not responsible for her in any way, and obviously the husband is responsible for his son.
And Allah Ta’ala (الله تعالى) knows best.
Read these QA to learn more..
- Q: A few days ago during a fight between my husband and myself, my husband said in extreme temper or rage “OK bring your relative I will finish this relation”. I said “no one can do this only we can. Give me divorce. He only said “I give you”, but did not use the word talaaq or divorce. After this we apologized to each other. I said to my husband you have given me 1 divorce. He said it does not count in divorce because he showed me a hadith in ighlaaq or extreme temper divorce will not count.
- Husband not fulfilling his responsibilities
- I was in nikkah with my husband but rukhsati had not taken place.My husband lives in karachi and my father never liked him so he and his friends forced my husband and threatened him to sign the divorce papers which he did though he did not have intentions to divorce me neither he said the divorce words three times as i was not present there.I was not even allowed to contact my husband.My father said he is not a man of good character so i must seek divorce.My husband was threatened for the lives of his family and was told i donot want to be with him.Now we both are very upset.We both donot know whether this divorce is legal according to islam or not?What about my idaah period?Please help us.May Allah pak bless you all.
- Dear Scholar: Assalam-o-Alaikum : I am suffering from a severe problem. My nikah was solemnized a year before but this marriage was not consummated. My husband went to Canada after one hour of our Nikah. We never met alone and this marriage was not consummated. Due to some problems which raised and could not be settled down. In October my husband said through an email that divorce paper are ready and I will send u soon. In December I received a divorce deed from my husband containing the statement ? Now this deed witness that, I the said do hereby divorce Almas Rashid pronouncing upon her Talak, Talak and Talak and by serving all connections of husband and wife with her forever and for good? My questions are: Q1: Is the procedure of divorce is same just like normal case as this marriage was not consummated (without any sexual relationship)? Q2: Is in such case its one divorce effective (as according to my information, it is counted as one in an un-consummed marriage)or it will be considered as tripple divorce effective(According to my husband his intention was of giving three divorces)? Q3: After receving the divorce deed, my husband said me through an email That I divorce u, I divorce u, I divorce u. When I was trying to convince him, that previously sent was one divorce. Will that be counted as 2nd or 3rd divorce? Plz reply me soon. Anxiously waiting for the answer. Plz guide me, as ur guidance can do a lot in my life. I want to continue my relationship and want to convince my husband. I will send ur answer to him with a hope to him direction. Plz plz plz help me
- recpected sir assalamu-alaikum, i want to know that if a lady wants to divorce her husband only because of the reason that he has got another wife, is her demand “jayaz”. She loves her husband very much and visa versa and has no other complains against him, its only that she cannot share her husband with another woman. 1)So if she wants a divorce on this ground, is it right or sinful. 2)can she take a divorce for this reason,like will the qazi allow or agree with it because i know that a man can hold four wives at a time. 3)is it necessary for a women to have a jayaz reason to leave her husband, always because in my question the man done nothing najayaz. 4) can a husband force this kind of relationship on a wife. like tell the wife that he will keep them both and will not give her divorce just because she cannot digest the other lady. plz inform me through my email address when you answer me back. jazak allah!
- My question is this that if a husband in anger said to his wife three times face to face that “I divorce you, I divorce you, I divorce you”, at the same time then is this divorce valid? After telling these words now he is saying that he was in anger and he had no intention to give divorce to her. So I have some more questions below: (1) Is intention necessary, important and essential part to give divorce by a husband? If there is no intention and a husband used words of divorce three time like “I give you divorce” then has divorce taken place? What is the importance of intention of a husband to give divorce? (2) If the husband was in anger, and now saying he was angry, then divorce given in anger is valid? (3) Is divorce given three times all at the same time saying words like “I give you divorce, I give you divorce, I give you divorce” is consider as one divorce or it is valid for three time divorce? And can a husband still take her wife back?