Does the following construe a divorce
Q: In an argument with my wife she said she wants a divorce. Later that day I sent these text messages. If you want to leave me speak to your dad, you know what to do. If you want to leave me, go and get khula, go to the shariah council. I had no intention of divorce. In a later message I also said I have no intention of leaving you. Has divorce taken place.
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- As-Salaam Alaikum Mufti Sahab, I know that giving or demanding divorce is a big sin. I have unintentionally signed divorce papers without knowing that divorce will take place even if I signed the divorce papers. When I came to know this I was shocked & depressed as I never intended to divorce my wife because I love her alot. I requested her to come back to my life as it was talaq-e-bain. But she refused thinking it was intentional divorce. My question is : Pleaes let me know if the sin of divorce is me or on my wife? Becuaes I was honest, as Allah knows, when I requested her to come back & I heard if she refuse to come back then the sin of divorce will be on her. Please clarify.
- My husband had been drinking came home smashed a door down, he came into the room i was in, and said there are two witnessess (my father and brother) i’m going to divorce you. And said ‘i divorce you, i divorce you, i divorce you…
- I wanted to know where I stand in my situation. Basically, I have given my wife first divorce in January. After that, we had ruju’ done and lived fine and happy for 6 months. But again, major issues were brought up and she went back to her mothers home. It has been three months with no contact and in that time, I signed a divorce paper witnessed by a solicitor which clearly states I divorce her. This was not given to her, but am I right to assume, because my intentions are involved, it is classed as the 2nd divorce? Now, someone is trying to mend the relationship, but it has been over 2 month since this 2nd divorce. I am confused because some one has said, that between the 2nd and 3rd, even if you don’t give a divorce, if the period of ruju’ is over, it automatically nullifies the marriage. is this true? Or are we still in nikaah?
- My question is this that if a husband in anger said to his wife three times face to face that “I divorce you, I divorce you, I divorce you”, at the same time then is this divorce valid? After telling these words now he is saying that he was in anger and he had no intention to give divorce to her. So I have some more questions below: (1) Is intention necessary, important and essential part to give divorce by a husband? If there is no intention and a husband used words of divorce three time like “I give you divorce” then has divorce taken place? What is the importance of intention of a husband to give divorce? (2) If the husband was in anger, and now saying he was angry, then divorce given in anger is valid? (3) Is divorce given three times all at the same time saying words like “I give you divorce, I give you divorce, I give you divorce” is consider as one divorce or it is valid for three time divorce? And can a husband still take her wife back?
- I need your help and guidance in clarifying a divorce matter. My friend’s husband pronounced her 9 times on phone that ‘I DIVORCE YOU’. After saying her, he called her father, mother, sister and brother separately and repeated the statement that ‘I HAVE GIVEN DIVORCE TO YOUR DAUGHTER/SISTER, SHE IS FREE FROM ME, TAKE HER AWAY FROM MY HOME. Now girl’s family says that it is full-fledged divorce and the marriage is over and boy’s family is of the view that boy has said this in anger just by mistake and it should be counted as one divorce. Can you please explain according to Islam whether it is one divorce or marriage is over?
- I would like to know the verdict if a man tells his wife in anger ‘why you don’t take divorce divorce divorce ‘. Does this count as a divorce?