I am a revert and I have some questions regarding Ahaadith

Answered according to Hanafi Fiqh by Muftionline.co.za

Q: I am a revert to Islam, and I’m still learning..however I have come across some hadith, that contradict the teachings and character of our beloved Nabi (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam)..one example, the Prophet (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) told his son to divorce his wife so that he (saw) could marry her for himself..another example is that he ordered the killing of 100’s of Jewish men because they didn’t accept Islam and allowed his men to rape the women of those slain men..my question is: Are all hadith true and authentic, and if not, which hadith should we follow?

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A: Hadhrat Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) is the fountain head of guidance. He is the leader of all the Ambiyaa and Rasuls (Messengers). Every action of Hadhrat Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) was beloved to Allah Ta’aala. It is our Islamic duty to acquire Deeni knowledge through authentic sources. One should learn Deen under the guidance of learned Ulama, not through self-study or unwittingly studying the works of just any writer, especially in this time and age where the kuffaar are targeting Islam and the august personality of Hadhrat Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam).

As far as “Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) commanding his son to divorce his wife and thereafter marrying her” is concerned, this is not correct. The correct version of the incident is as follows:

Hadhrat Zaid bin Haaritha (Radhiallahu Anhu) was the adopted son of Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam). Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) arranged his nikah to Hadhrat Zainub (Radhiallahu Anha). However, since the marital relationship between the both did not go well Hadhrat Zaid (Radhiallahu Anhu) intended divorcing her. Allah Ta’aala informed Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) that the nikah is eventually going to terminate and that Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) should marry Hadhrat Zainub (Radhiallahu Anha) after she is divorced.

Nevertheless, when Hadhrat Zaid (Radhiallahu Anhu) approached Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) and expressed his intention to divorce Hadhrat Zainub (Radhiallahu Anha), Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) continued discouraging him from divorcing her and commanded him to fulfil her rights. Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) did not disclose to him that he was informed by Allah Ta’aala that the nikah will not last.

Finally, when Hadhrat Zaid (Radhiallahu Anhu) divorced Hadhrat Zainub (Radhiallahu Anha), Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) married her as per the command of Allah Ta’aala. Her marriage to Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) was a source of great consolation for her after the termination of her nikah with Zaid (Radhiallahu Anhu) (which was arranged by Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam)). It is reported that she used to boast amongst the other wives of Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) that her nikah was performed with Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) by Allah Ta’aala above the seven heavens (whereas no other wife enjoyed this honour).

This is the true version of the incident you quoted. It is clearly noticeable that the version explained in the book (or website) you came across is completely distorted and concocted in order to mislead one from the path of Islam.

As far as “Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) commanding the Sahaabah to rape the Jewish women” is concerned, this is also incorrect. Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) did not command anyone at any time to rape any woman, whether Jewish, Christian, a fire worshipper or an idol worshipper. Instead in the time of Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) the international law approved by all (not just the Muslims) in warfare was that the women captives were enslaved and the men captives were either killed or taken as slaves. If any fighter received a slave woman in his share of the booty, it was completely permissible for him under the international law (not just the Islamic law) to cohabit with her. This was not regarded as rape. If a Jew or Christian received a slave woman of the Muslims, they regarded her as their property and treated her as their slave. Why are the Muslims treated with prejudice and being singled out? Why is it that a different set of rules and laws should apply to them?

It seems like the ones who authored the book you read were either Jews or someone sharing their (Jews) emotions and sentiments. By studying the works of such perverts, we will only pervert our understanding of Islam. 

وَإِذ تَقولُ لِلَّذى أَنعَمَ اللَّـهُ عَلَيهِ وَأَنعَمتَ عَلَيهِ أَمسِك عَلَيكَ زَوجَكَ وَاتَّقِ اللَّـهَ وَتُخفى فى نَفسِكَ مَا اللَّـهُ مُبديهِ وَتَخشَى النّاسَ وَاللَّـهُ أَحَقُّ أَن تَخشىهُ فَلَمّا قَضى زَيدٌ مِنها وَطَرًا زَوَّجنـكَها لِكَى لا يَكونَ عَلَى المُؤمِنينَ حَرَجٌ فى أَزوجِ أَدعِيائِهِم إِذا قَضَوا مِنهُنَّ وَطَرًا وَكانَ أَمرُ اللَّـهِ مَفعولًا ﴿٣٧﴾ (سورة الأحزاب)

The meanings of the Noble Qur’an-Mufti Taqi Uthmaani (2/779)

قال وإذا خرج أحد الزوجين إلينا من دار الحرب مسلما وقعت البينونة بينهما وقال الشافعي لا تقع ولو سبي أحد الزوجين وقعت البينونة بينهما بغير طلاق وإن سبيا معا لم تقع البينونة وقال الشافعي رحمه الله وقعت فالحاصل أن السبب هو التباين دون السبي عندنا (هداية 2/347)

Answered by:

Mufti Zakaria Makada

Checked & Approved:

Mufti Ebrahim Salejee (Isipingo Beach)

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