I have a poor relative. I gave him some money for help by saying that this is for sweets for children. I did so because otherwise he will not accept the money. But my intention was to help him. Can he use that money for his daily bread? Is it necessary for him to buy sweets for children with that money?
Answer
(Fatwa: 857/857/M=1433)
In the question mentioned above, when your intention was to help that poor relative and to give him the money then that person may use that money in his requirement. Yes, if the intention was to give it to the children then it might be the property of the children.
Allah (Subhana Wa Ta’ala) knows Best
Darul Ifta,
Darul Uloom Deoband