Respected Mufti Sahib, I have a question. Iam currently living in Australia and my husband lives in Pakistan. We were arguing on the phone and he said these words to me ‘maine tumhe talaq di inshallah’ what does this mean? Is this divorce valid? Have I been divorced once?
Answer
(Fatwa: 998984=D/1429)
If one pronounces in-sha-Allah simultaneously with talaq then the talaq will not take place. So, in the above-mentioned case, if he did not give any other talaq then you will not be divorced.
Allah (Subhana Wa Ta’ala) knows Best
Darul Ifta,
Darul Uloom Deoband