Home » Hanafi Fiqh » Darulifta-Deoband.com » I divorced my wife in anger , then a family friend for sake of cooperation and to get us togather again, as we have kids. did nikah with my wife with out any Halala conditions, but we all knew that we are doing this nikah for halala purpose. Then he divorced and I remarried to my wife. I want to Ask that is Halah is permissable, as many scholar says that its totally Haram, if any one with such intentions ties Nikah. I am very much confused. Please help me.

I divorced my wife in anger , then a family friend for sake of cooperation and to get us togather again, as we have kids. did nikah with my wife with out any Halala conditions, but we all knew that we are doing this nikah for halala purpose. Then he divorced and I remarried to my wife. I want to Ask that is Halah is permissable, as many scholar says that its totally Haram, if any one with such intentions ties Nikah. I am very much confused. Please help me.

Answered as per Hanafi Fiqh by Darulifta-Deoband.com
I divorced my wife in anger , then a family friend for sake of cooperation and to get us togather again, as we have kids. did nikah with my wife with out any Halala conditions, but we all knew that we are doing this nikah for halala purpose. Then he divorced and I remarried to my wife. I want to Ask that is Halah is permissible, as many scholar says that its totally Haram, if any one with such intentions ties Nikah. I am very much confused. Please help me.

Answer

(Fatwa: 843/673/D=1431)

If, after you gave talaq and she completed her iddah period, she married any other man and that man also divorced her after having intercourse, then you are allowed to marry when her iddah period is over. You need not to be confused. Having such intention will not debar the validity of halalah.

Allah (Subhana Wa Ta’ala) knows Best

Darul Ifta,
Darul Uloom Deoband

This answer was collected from the official ifta website of Darul Uloom Deoband in India.

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