Answered according to Hanafi Fiqh by
The question is with regards to divorce. A woman is not quite sure whether she is in the marriage of her husband after she heavily thinks he has used the words ‘talaq’ on her a several times in the last 5/6 months directly as well as indirectly. One of the talaq he had given her was recently, and it was out of anger, could you clarify that this talaq that he had given her goes through? Two more instances; one being, he phoned her mother saying in another language (Bengali), the translation of which goes “I have let your daughter free/let her go etc.”
Secondly, being, both lying on the bed, the husband a bit angry, says “Why do not we get a divorce?”
Finally, there are other instances where the husband was angry with the wife, and shouts out to her “you divorcee”.
Please can you clarify and explain where they both stand at this moment of time. Additional information is that the woman experiences her monthly cycle every 4/5 months on estimation and has not had one throughout the duration of the above incidences.

بسم الله الرحمن الرحيم

(Fatwa: 551/432/H=1434)

If you divorced three times or more, then all the three talaqs took place and the wife became haram. If you mean something else with the use of word talaq then write the same word which you have uttered regarding the talaq and submit your query again. However, it is better to request local Ulama and Muftis who will investigate the case of talaq and tell you the Shariah ruling. Or they will prepare the question and then send it to us. Then in-shaAllah, we shall write the ruling in detail.

Allah knows Best!

Darul Ifta,
Darul Uloom Deoband

This answer was collected from the official ifta website of Darul Uloom Deoband in India.

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