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Can a Muslim rent his property to a Christian. The Christian wants to start Bible classes on that property. The family lives in USA?

Answered as per Hanafi Fiqh by Askimam.org

Assalam-u-alequm

Can a Muslim rent his own property to a Christian. The Christian wants to start Bible Classes on that property. The Family lives in USA?

Answer

Answer:

In the Name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful.

As-salāmu ‘alaykum wa-rahmatullāhi wa-barakātuh.

According to Imam Abu Haneefah (Rahmatullahi Alayhi), it is permissible for one to lease one’s property to a non-Muslim for the purposes of running a church, synagogue or even selling wine. However, according to Imam Muhammed (Rahmatullahi Alayhi), Imam Abu Yusuf (Rahmatullahi Alayhi) and the other three Imam’s, it is not permissible for the lessor to lease out his property for such purposes.[1]

The main issue of discussion is I’anah alal Ma’siyah (assisting in sin). The Fuqaha have differed regarding the classification of “Assisting in Sin”.

The ideal ruling would be that one does not lease one’s property for such purposes. If one has Taqwa, firm Eemaan and courage, one should abstain from such an arrangement.

Allah (Subhanahu Wa Ta’ala) says:

وَلَا تَعَاوَنُوا عَلَى الْإِثْمِ 

“And do not assist one another in sin” (Qur’an 5:2)

If one is in financial constraints and experiences difficulty in abstaining from leasing the property for such purposes referred to in the question, then one will be excused to lease out the property.

Kindly refer to the following link for more details on leasing out one’s property to non-Muslims: http://daruliftaa.net/Islamic-Finance/rentproperty.html[2]

And Allah Ta’āla Knows Best

Moulana Ismail Desai,
Student Darul Iftaa
Durban, South Africa

Checked and Approved by,
Mufti Ebrahim Desai.

 


    1 في الدر المختار: ( و ) جاز ( إجارة بيت بسواد الكوفة ) أي قراها ( لا بغيرها على الأصح ) وأما الأمصار وقرى غير الكوفة فلا يمكنون لظهور شعار الإسلام فيها ، وخص سواد الكوفة لأن غالب أهلها أهل الذمة ( ليتخذ بيت نار أو كنيسة أو بيعة أو يباع فيه الخمر ) وقالا لا ينبغي ذلك لأنه إعانة على المعصية وبه قالت الثلاثة ، زيلعي 

 

وقال ابن عابدين رحمه الله: ( قوله وجاز إجارة بيت إلخ ) هذا عنده أيضا لأن الإجارة على منفعة البيت ، ولهذا يجب الأجر بمجرد التسليم ، ولا معصية فيه وإنما المعصية بفعل المستأجر وهو مختار فينقطع نسبيته عنه ، فصار كبيع الجارية ممن لا يستبرئها أو يأتيها من دبر وبيع الغلام من لوطي والدليل عليه أنه لو آجره للسكنى جاز وهو لا بد له من عبادته فيه ا هـ زيلعي وعيني ومثله في النهاية والكفاية 

( رد المحتار: 6/392، سعيد  )

[2] Last accessed at 11/09/2012.

 

This answer was collected from Askimam.org, which is operated under the supervision of Mufti Ebrahim Desai from South Africa.

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