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In your reply to question (4365)from UK, under the section of Nikah, you said that a man who has committed incest with a woman her daughter becomes haram on him. In the next line you said…

Answered as per Hanafi Fiqh by Askimam.org

In your reply to question (4365)from UK, under the section of Nikah, you said that a man who has committed incest with a woman her daughter becomes haram on him. In the next line you said :” The incest that leads to the prohibition is approaching with lust and desire”. Kindly explain approaching in this context. If he merely touches the woman with intention of desire and lust, with absolutely no intercourse involved, would her daughter become haram on him in this condition too ? Also kindly have a look at this fatwa too, http://www.islamweb.net/ver2/fatwa/ShowFatwa.php?lang=E&Id=83626 &Option=FatwaId&x=36&y=15 I’ll be anxiously waiting for your reply. jazakallah khair.

Answer

In the name of Allāh, Most Gracious, Most Merciful


Assalāmu ῾alaykum wa Rahmatullāhi Wabarakātuh

In reference to your question approaching will mean, touching any part of the body or looking at the inner area of the private part of a woman besides one`s spouse with lust and desire whether intercourse took place or not.


In the above cases, marriage between the ascendants and descendants of both parties will become unlawful to each other.

 (Hidaya,Vol.2 Pg.309 Ilmiya)[1]

This will apply if it was done intentionally or unintentionally.

The benchmark for defining lust and desire will be erection of the private part. Erection will be considered in a man who is capable of attaining an erection. Mere lust and desire will be considered in the case of one who no longer attains an erection because of old age or some physical illness.  However, if ejaculation takes place while touching, the prohibition of marriage will fall away.

(Fatawa Tatarkhaniya Pg.618,Vol.2,Ashraf Manzil)[2]
(Alfatawa Alwalwalajiya Pg.358 Vol.1,Ilmiya)
(Durrul Mukhtaar Pg.33,Vol.3,HM Saeed)

(Fathul Qadeer Pg.129.Vol.3,Rashidiya)[3]
(Hidaya Vol.2,Pg.309,Ilmiya)

And Allāh Ta῾āla Knows Best

Wassalāmu ῾alaykum

Ml. Muhammed Sindhi,
Student Dārul Iftā

Checked and Approved by:


Mufti Ebrahim Desai
Dārul Iftā, Madrasah In῾āmiyyah



 .[1]  ثم ان المس بشهوة ان ينتشر الآلة او تزداد انتشارا هو الصحيح …و لو مس فانزل الصحيح انه لا يوجبها ( اي   حرمة المصاهرة) (هداية,  فصل فى بيان المحرمات)

[2]  ولا تثبت هذه الحرمة بالنظر الى سائر الاعضاء و ان كان عن شهوة, و حد الشهوة ان تنتشر الا لة بالنظر الى الفرج و فى الهداية : هر الصحيح. و هذا اذا كان شابا قادرا على الجماع. وان كان شيخا عنينا فحد الشهوة ان يتحرك قلبه بالاشتهاء……و كثير من الشايخ لم يشترطوا الانتشار ….و فى الظهرية: هو الاصح.(الفتاوى التاترخانية كتاب النكاح,اسباب التحريم)

[3]  و لا فرق فى ثبوت الحرمة بالمس بين كونه عامدا او ناسيا…(فتح القدير فصل فى بيان المحرمات)

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This answer was collected from Askimam.org, which is operated under the supervision of Mufti Ebrahim Desai from South Africa.

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