Answer
(Fatwa: 361/364/N=1433)
(1&3) If the person mentioned there in the question wrote in the talaqnama addressing his wife only that he is giving her talaq and did not condition the talaq with receiving the talaqnama, then in this case though his wife did not receive the talaqnama rather she returned it then too talaq took place on his wife merely by writing the talaqnama. Whatever the people say is right.
قال فى الفتاوى الهندية (كتاب الطلاق الباب الثاني في إيقاع الطلاق الفصل السادس فى الطلاق بالكتابة 1: 378) : ثم المرسومة لا تخلو إما أن أرسل الطلاق بأن كتب أما بعد فأنت طالق فكما كتب هذا يقع الطلاق وتلزمها العدة من وقت الكتابة …… اهـ ومثله فى الرد (أول كتاب الطلاق 4:456 ط زكريا ديوبند عن الهندية اهـ)
(2) If the husband has not given three talaqs to his wife within wedlock and iddah and he has only given the one talaq which is mentioned in the question or he has given one more talaq then it is lawful for the husband to marry her without Shariah halalah.
Allah (Subhana Wa Ta’ala) knows Best
Darul Ifta,
Darul Uloom Deoband