Home » Hanafi Fiqh » Askimam.org » Why does a Muslim marry a non-Muslim, knowing very well that he or she consumes Haraam food?

Why does a Muslim marry a non-Muslim, knowing very well that he or she consumes Haraam food?

Answered as per Hanafi Fiqh by Askimam.org
Answer

It is not permissible for a Muslim female to marry a non-Muslim male. However, a Muslim male may marry only Christian or Jewish female. It is not permissible for a Muslim male to marry any other non-Muslim female.

The reason it is permissible for the Muslim male to marry a non-Muslim female is that he would be able to easily convince the Christian or Jewish wife into accepting Islam. There is a possibility of the non-Muslim male convincing his Muslim wife into abandoning Islam. Therefore, Islam has considered her feminine nature and protected her correct beliefs from being a victim of abuse from the male dominance.

The Muslim husband is not obliged to pressurise his Christian/Jewish wife to accept Islam. He may apply wisdom and diplomacy and only influence her to Islam. In Islam, a female is equally respected as a male, however, due to the different masculine and feminine natures, Islam believes in separation of roles. It is obvious that there are many things a male can do, which is not easily possible for a female and vice versa.

And Allah Ta’ala Knows Best.

Mufti Ebrahim Desai

Original Source Link

This answer was collected from Askimam.org, which is operated under the supervision of Mufti Ebrahim Desai from South Africa.

Read answers with similar topics: